By the way, I found some more inconsistencies.
It seems that you guys think that for two real numbers x and y, we either have x = y or x < y, and a finite set A is a subset of a finite set B if the size of A is less than the size of B. Is there a mysterious mathematics behind? Are you developing a new axiom that no one has known before? Please write a paper about it. I so want to see.
By the way, I found some more inconsistencies.
It seems that you guys think that for two real numbers x and y, we either have x = y or x < y, and a finite set A is a subset of a finite set B if the size of A is less than the size of B. Is there a mysterious mathematics behind? Are you developing a new axiom that no one has known before? Please write a paper about it. I so want to see.